Test Your Knowledge - Masters of Nuclear Medicine

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Free Demo Exam (20Q)

“Try our free 20-question demo exam, designed to simulate board-style Nuclear Medicine questions. Randomized each time you attempt it, this test gives you a quick snapshot of your readiness and a taste of our full mock exams (50, 100, and 150 questions).”

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1 / 20

1. During diuretic renography for suspected obstruction, a patient has persistent cortical retention with no clearance after furosemide. What is the interpretation?

A) Indeterminate

B) Normal drainage

C) Non-obstructive dilatation

D) Acute obstruction

2 / 20

2. Which material provides the most effective shielding for Tc-99m?

A) Plastic

B) Tungsten

C) Lead

D) Aluminum

3 / 20

3. V/Q SPECT, a wedge-shaped perfusion defect with preserved ventilation corresponds to:

A) Indeterminate

B) High probability PE

C) Low probability PE (PIOPED II)

D) Intermediate probability PE

4 / 20

4. For FDG PET viability imaging, which preparation best ensures myocardial glucose uptake?

A) No preparation required

B) Heparin 50 IU/kg IV before FDG

C) High-carbohydrate load or insulin–glucose clamp

D) 12-hour fast + high-fat breakfast

5 / 20

5. Which imaging modality has the highest sensitivity for vertebral osteomyelitis in the early phase (<1 week)?

A) FDG PET/CT

B) MRI

C) In-111 WBC scintigraphy

D) Tc-99m MDP bone scan

6 / 20

6. Which tumor is typically FDG-negative, limiting PET’s sensitivity in staging?

A) Aggressive B-cell lymphoma

B) Esophageal squamous cell carcinoma

C) Prostate adenocarcinoma

D) NSCLC adenocarcinoma

7 / 20

7. In differentiating frontotemporal dementia (FTD) from Alzheimer’s disease on FDG PET:

A) AD spares the posterior cingulate cortex

B) FTD shows hypometabolism in occipital cortex

C) AD shows asymmetric striatal uptake loss

D) FTD shows frontal and anterior temporal hypometabolism

8 / 20

8. In a patient with neonatal jaundice, what is the most specific scintigraphic sign of biliary atresia on Tc-99m mebrofenin HIDA scan?

A) Early renal excretion of tracer

B) Good hepatic uptake with no bowel excretion at 24 hours

C) Persistent cardiac blood pool

D) Delayed hepatocyte uptake

9 / 20

9. Which organ receives the highest absorbed dose during I-131 therapy for thyroid carcinoma (aside from thyroid remnant/metastasis)?

A) Lungs

B) Bone marrow

C) Salivary glands

D) Kidneys

10 / 20

10. Which finding on HIDA scan is most specific for acute cholecystitis?

A) Bowel visualization within 30 minutes

B) Absence of gallbladder visualization after morphine augmentation

C) Delayed gallbladder visualization at 4 hours

D) Photopenic defect in right lobe

11 / 20

11. Which preparation enhances the effectiveness of radioiodine therapy after total thyroidectomy?

A) Iodinated contrast administration

B) High calcium diet

C) TSH suppression with levothyroxine

D) Recombinant human TSH administration

12 / 20

12. Which agent is most appropriate for labeling leukocytes in infection imaging?

A) Tc-99m MDP

B) In-111 oxine

C) Ga-67 citrate

D) Tc-99m sulfur colloid

13 / 20

13. Which is the most specific scintigraphic finding for chronic thromboembolic pulmonary hypertension (CTEPH) on V/Q scan?

A) Reversible mismatched subsegmental defects

B) Large mismatched segmental defects

C) Matched ventilation–perfusion abnormalities

D) Non-segmental patchy perfusion defects

14 / 20

14. In a patient with thyrotoxicosis and a history of amiodarone use, which scintigraphic finding is most suggestive of Type 2 amiodarone-induced thyrotoxicosis?

A) Solitary hot nodule suppressing background thyroid

B) Globally reduced uptake despite clinical thyrotoxicosis

C) Patchy focal increased uptake in multinodular pattern

D) High, diffuse uptake on Tc-99m pertechnetate

15 / 20

15. Which nodal station generally does NOT require EBUS confirmation even if FDG-avid on PET/CT?

A) 10R (right hilar)

B) 4R (right lower paratracheal)

C) 7 (subcarinal)

D) 2L (left upper paratracheal)

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16. Which FDG PET pattern is most typical for Alzheimer’s disease?

A) Patchy cortical hypometabolism with striatal involvement

B) Bilateral posterior cingulate and temporoparietal hypometabolism

C) Occipital hypometabolism sparing cingulate

D) Frontal hypometabolism sparing parietal lobes

17 / 20

17. Which finding best differentiates superscan of metastatic prostate cancer from metabolic superscan (e.g., hyperparathyroidism)?

A) Distribution pattern of axial vs appendicular uptake

B) Increased skeletal uptake

C) Absence of bladder activity

D) Poor renal visualization

18 / 20

18. Which coronary territory corresponds to a reversible perfusion defect in the inferolateral wall on SPECT MPI?

A) LCx

B) PDA

C) RCA

D) LAD

19 / 20

19. In osteosarcoma, which bone scan finding is most typical?

A) Cold defect due to necrosis

B) Intense uptake extending beyond growth plate

C) Homogeneous uptake limited to metaphysis

D) Absent uptake due to dedifferentiation

20 / 20

20. In labeled leukocyte scintigraphy, which radiopharmaceutical is best for detecting abdominal abscesses?

A) F-18 FDG

B) Tc-99m sulfur colloid

C) In-111 oxine leukocytes

D) Tc-99m HMPAO leukocytes

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