Test Your Knowledge - Masters of Nuclear Medicine

Try our free Demo Test and get a taste of the Masters of Nuclear Medicine mock exams. This quiz shows you board-style MCQs. You will see the format. You will feel the challenge. It is the perfect preview of how our exams build confidence, sharpen skills, and prepare you for success.

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Mohammad Ghanem

Free Demo Exam (20Q)

“Try our free 20-question demo exam, designed to simulate board-style Nuclear Medicine questions. Randomized each time you attempt it, this test gives you a quick snapshot of your readiness and a taste of our full mock exams (50, 100, and 150 questions).”

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1 / 20

1. Which FDG PET pattern is most typical for Alzheimer’s disease?

A) Bilateral posterior cingulate and temporoparietal hypometabolism

B) Occipital hypometabolism sparing cingulate

C) Patchy cortical hypometabolism with striatal involvement

D) Frontal hypometabolism sparing parietal lobes

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2. In differentiating frontotemporal dementia (FTD) from Alzheimer’s disease on FDG PET:

A) AD shows asymmetric striatal uptake loss

B) FTD shows hypometabolism in occipital cortex

C) FTD shows frontal and anterior temporal hypometabolism

D) AD spares the posterior cingulate cortex

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3. During diuretic renography for suspected obstruction, a patient has persistent cortical retention with no clearance after furosemide. What is the interpretation?

A) Acute obstruction

B) Non-obstructive dilatation

C) Normal drainage

D) Indeterminate

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4. In a patient with thyrotoxicosis and a history of amiodarone use, which scintigraphic finding is most suggestive of Type 2 amiodarone-induced thyrotoxicosis?

A) Globally reduced uptake despite clinical thyrotoxicosis

B) High, diffuse uptake on Tc-99m pertechnetate

C) Solitary hot nodule suppressing background thyroid

D) Patchy focal increased uptake in multinodular pattern

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5. In osteosarcoma, which bone scan finding is most typical?

A) Intense uptake extending beyond growth plate

B) Cold defect due to necrosis

C) Homogeneous uptake limited to metaphysis

D) Absent uptake due to dedifferentiation

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6. Which preparation enhances the effectiveness of radioiodine therapy after total thyroidectomy?

A) High calcium diet

B) Iodinated contrast administration

C) TSH suppression with levothyroxine

D) Recombinant human TSH administration

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7. Which finding best differentiates superscan of metastatic prostate cancer from metabolic superscan (e.g., hyperparathyroidism)?

A) Absence of bladder activity

B) Distribution pattern of axial vs appendicular uptake

C) Poor renal visualization

D) Increased skeletal uptake

8 / 20

8. Which material provides the most effective shielding for Tc-99m?

A) Plastic

B) Lead

C) Aluminum

D) Tungsten

9 / 20

9. Which finding on HIDA scan is most specific for acute cholecystitis?

A) Photopenic defect in right lobe

B) Absence of gallbladder visualization after morphine augmentation

C) Delayed gallbladder visualization at 4 hours

D) Bowel visualization within 30 minutes

10 / 20

10. Which coronary territory corresponds to a reversible perfusion defect in the inferolateral wall on SPECT MPI?

A) RCA

B) PDA

C) LAD

D) LCx

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11. In a patient with neonatal jaundice, what is the most specific scintigraphic sign of biliary atresia on Tc-99m mebrofenin HIDA scan?

A) Delayed hepatocyte uptake

B) Persistent cardiac blood pool

C) Early renal excretion of tracer

D) Good hepatic uptake with no bowel excretion at 24 hours

12 / 20

12. Which tumor is typically FDG-negative, limiting PET’s sensitivity in staging?

A) Aggressive B-cell lymphoma

B) NSCLC adenocarcinoma

C) Prostate adenocarcinoma

D) Esophageal squamous cell carcinoma

13 / 20

13. V/Q SPECT, a wedge-shaped perfusion defect with preserved ventilation corresponds to:

A) Intermediate probability PE

B) Indeterminate

C) High probability PE

D) Low probability PE (PIOPED II)

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14. Which nodal station generally does NOT require EBUS confirmation even if FDG-avid on PET/CT?

A) 7 (subcarinal)

B) 4R (right lower paratracheal)

C) 10R (right hilar)

D) 2L (left upper paratracheal)

15 / 20

15. Which agent is most appropriate for labeling leukocytes in infection imaging?

A) Tc-99m MDP

B) Tc-99m sulfur colloid

C) In-111 oxine

D) Ga-67 citrate

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16. Which organ receives the highest absorbed dose during I-131 therapy for thyroid carcinoma (aside from thyroid remnant/metastasis)?

A) Salivary glands

B) Kidneys

C) Lungs

D) Bone marrow

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17. For FDG PET viability imaging, which preparation best ensures myocardial glucose uptake?

A) No preparation required

B) High-carbohydrate load or insulin–glucose clamp

C) 12-hour fast + high-fat breakfast

D) Heparin 50 IU/kg IV before FDG

18 / 20

18. Which is the most specific scintigraphic finding for chronic thromboembolic pulmonary hypertension (CTEPH) on V/Q scan?

A) Large mismatched segmental defects

B) Non-segmental patchy perfusion defects

C) Matched ventilation–perfusion abnormalities

D) Reversible mismatched subsegmental defects

19 / 20

19. In labeled leukocyte scintigraphy, which radiopharmaceutical is best for detecting abdominal abscesses?

A) F-18 FDG

B) In-111 oxine leukocytes

C) Tc-99m HMPAO leukocytes

D) Tc-99m sulfur colloid

20 / 20

20. Which imaging modality has the highest sensitivity for vertebral osteomyelitis in the early phase (<1 week)?

A) MRI

B) Tc-99m MDP bone scan

C) FDG PET/CT

D) In-111 WBC scintigraphy

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